In my opinion, this is the problem with how this subject is debated. There is no agreement on the definitions. Someone who insists “reverse racism” exists is not talking about institutional racism. The argument you’re making is that the only kind of racism that exists is institutional racism and since “reverse racism” isn’t institutional racism, it doesn’t exist. Individual racism does exists, and thus the possibility of a black person being racist towards a white person exists as well. The argument should be, “reverse racism” is not systemic problem. It’s anecdotal at best and isn’t relevant as a social issue. There isn’t a large group of white people that suffer from the effects of “reverse racism” in the U.S.